they just keep offering more and more, that's your question, here it's called Martin
and unfortunately for us that is how the price goes, that is why FormulaE is Doll's and nothing else.
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The figure you enclosed in your microeconomics textbook only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There is no other point to this picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand" for example). Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The figure you enclosed in your microeconomics textbook only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There's no other point to this picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand", for example). Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The picture that you attached to your textbook on microeconomics only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are located at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There is no other meaning to the picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand", for example). Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
no
If you sell at a high price, it means that the transaction will not take place at that price.
but will take place at a lower selling price, i.e.to the greedy seller at a loss
I hope we don't need to explain buying, because it's the other way round.
And you are right - it is a question of calculating the optimum price, i.e. which can be calculated using the formula
You haven't sold, you just wanted to (intention) as the deal still needs to be closed
Same options, essentially
You do not take into account one nuance. The forex market is not understood by everyone. Only speculators open a deal and sit around waiting for a miracle.) In reality, the client comes, change the currency and go home. And speculators sit with their mouths open)))
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that's what it says.
Look carefully.
they just keep offering more and more, that's your question, here it's called Martin
and unfortunately for us that is how the price goes, that is why FormulaE is Doll's and nothing else.
So the price will only drop when there are no more sellers left. How do you figure that?
Not necessarily and far from it.
Let's wait for the formula.
maybe someone will
Chegevara, don't throw the formula.
I wouldn't be having this conversation in the first place if there hadn't been a lot of "funny pictures" in the thread this morning.
that's what it says.
Look carefully.
they just keep offering more and more, that's your question, here it's called Martin
and unfortunately for us that is how the price goes, that is why FormulaE is Doll's and nothing else.
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The figure you enclosed in your microeconomics textbook only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There is no other point to this picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand" for example).
Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
not necessarily and far from it
Let's wait for the formula.
maybe someone will.
Chegevara, don't throw the formula.
I wouldn't have started this conversation at all if there hadn't been a lot of "funny pictures" in the thread this morning
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The figure you enclosed in your microeconomics textbook only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There's no other point to this picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand", for example).
Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
Gentlemen, your heads are all messed up with these "formulae" and "dolls" and you have forgotten how the market works. The picture that you attached to your textbook on microeconomics only exists to illustrate that the optimum quantity of a commodity and its optimum price are located at the intersection of the supply and demand curve. That's it! There is no other meaning to the picture, especially since supply and demand curves look different for different goods (google "elasticity of demand", for example).
Price goes where the flow of money goes. If money goes into an asset, its price goes up. If money goes out of the asset, its price goes down.
no
If you sell at a high price, it means that the transaction will not take place at that price.
but will take place at a lower selling price, i.e.to the greedy seller at a loss
I hope we don't need to explain buying, because it's the other way round.
And you are right - it is a question of calculating the optimum price, i.e. which can be calculated using the formulaThat's right. ++ Who let them into the market?
You see, Vladimir, you don't have to take entrance exams here. You don't even have to write an essay. You can use the downloaded ones. :)
no
if you have sold at a high price, it means that the transaction will not take place at this price
but will take place at a lower selling price, i.e. to the greedy seller at a loss
I hope we don't have to explain buying, because it's the other way around.
And you are right - it is a question of calculating the optimal price, i.e. the price that can be calculated using the formulaIf I've sold dearly, the deal's already done. :) But you, of course, your formula can count as you like. :)
If I've sold dearly, the deal is already done. :) But you, of course, according to your Formula, can count as you like. :)
You haven't sold, you've only wanted (intended) to, because the deal still needs to be closed.
Same options, essentially
You haven't sold, you just wanted to (intention) as the deal still needs to be closed
Same options, essentially