On the unequal probability of a price move up or down - page 71
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for small changes in a and b
1/(1+x) = 1-x + (x squared)
I did that 2 years ago before you registered on this resource :)
a/b != a-b of course, but what was meant was probably the following:
for small changes in a and b
1/(1+x) = 1-x + (x squared)
No, don't bother.
superimpose the pairs on the same chart of such a plan:
EURUSD, GBPUSD, EURGBP
it'll be like I said above, regardless of the size of the moves
That is to say:
EURUSD - GBPUSD = EUR/GBP
K-values change slightly, but for real trading it is unnoticeable.
Everyone probably knows about triangles and the fact that one of the pairs can be obtained through a linear combination of the other two ( EURUSD, GBPUSD, EURGBP).
The k-values change slightly, but for real trading it is unnoticeable.
a/b != a-b of course, but what is meant is probably the following:
for small changes in a and b
1/(1+x) = 1-x + (x squared)
Are you of sound mind, colleague? Are you using anything?
Do you realise that without specifying the point in the vicinity of which you are doing the series expansion, your statement makes no sense at all? Try looking at those pieces of the graph where even the sign of the first derivative is different for the functions you cite.
Renat Akhtyamov:
regardless of the size of the movements:
EURUSD - GBPUSD = EUR/GBP
Into the annals of delirium )
In the annals of bullshit )
Take your time, demozit is no indicator
and proves absolutely nothing.
But I wouldn't advise you to be rude.Which corresponds to forex - currencies move by 1-2% as a rule for intraday.
Taylor's decomposition at zero of course ... which corresponds to a fora...
Are you sure about zero? Think again.