On the unequal probability of a price move up or down - page 43
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If you state the drawdown as a percentage of margin, then you must state the leverage you are working with.
Otherwise your words look like fraud.
My account is small - I'm working on a bet with 1000 p. The leverage is 1:1000. I have opened positions for 368 p. (My robot has a good reputation when I've known about it and I've always had a good RoboForex in it. My main problem is that I`ve tried to put all my money in the market because of greed and flat, but I`ve already spent and withdraw 1500 rubles. Come kolyan - I'll start again. Somehow ... :) I made 150% to the initial deposit during two previous days.
To the previous post: current ratio in pound/euro 3.45, in gold/euro 1.91 ... I have not understood yet the normal values - I need some statistics, which I am gathering at the moment.
P.S. I also come to the conclusion to close positions on the general trawl - so I think the potential profit will be higher. Today, the first entry and the second one, which is in work, have already been closed in +, with +15-20% profit to my depo. :) But again, we need some statistics. Who will start testing the Expert Advisor? I don't have time yet ... :)
Good afternoon forum members and visitors to this thread in particular! :)
Today I made a deal on the TS system with my upgrade! Actually look everything on the screenshot!
P.S. The drawdown on deals was not more than 50% of the margin.
Note, the TS was not even a gram profitable (because you have it in the screenshot, that he could close somewhere there with a profit).
So don't. I`ve been working these days exactly on these two pairs, and TC periodically checked its situation - it wasn`t in profit.
Note, the TC wasn't profitable at all (as your screenshot says he could have closed with a profit somewhere in there).
So don't. I`ve been working these days exactly on these two pairs, well, and TC periodically checked its situation - it wasn`t in profit.
TC itself hasn't had profit yet! And where did I say that "... it could have closed with profit somewhere..." ? ? You're confusing me with someone else - I didn't write such a thing personally. I wrote that according to the topicstarter's system "... it should have closed ...", but it was my trades, not his.
I may have mentioned earlier that TS should have closed - the signal was there but there was no profit. But it is possible to close in minus - it depends what kind of minus really ... :)
But I acknowledged my mistake later - I had to move the window ... :)
P.S. But you don't know whether it opened later or not with refill. If he opened with bigger lots, and if he averaged, he could close at profit - I think he would do that, but you will start "shouting" - the averaging, bad man, etc.. Now he will wait for the profit and show us everything ... And that, I give you the same 95%, will happen. And I think tomorrow ... :)
P.S.2I was once written (true story though): "Give not to dogs what is sacred and do not throw your pearls to swine, lest they trample them under their feet and turn and tear you to pieces" - as Jesus Christ said to me from the Sermon on the Mount.
I wrote that according to the topstarter's system "... there should have been a cover-up...", but it was my trades, not his.
Yes, the first paragraph in your screenshot.
It doesn't say it's about your trades, it's just about TC. That's why I wrote that note.
But in general, it seems that TC has almost collapsed after all ))))
Will it or will it not collapse at the CU?
Place your bets.
;)
The account is small - on a bet I'm going from 1,000 p. The leverage is 1:1000. I opened positions for 368 p. (My main advantage is that I have a huge amount of money in my account, I have lost only 170 Rog (in some moment I had +10-15 Rog). My main problem is that I`ve tried to put all my money in the market because of greed and flat, but I`ve already spent and withdraw 1500 rubles. Come kolyan - I'll start again. Somehow ... :) I made 150% to the initial deposit during two previous days.
To the previous post: current ratio in pound/euro 3.45, in gold/euro 1.91 ... I have not understood yet the normal values or not - I need statistics, which I am gathering now.
P.S. I also come to the conclusion to close positions on the general trawl - so I think the potential profit will be higher. Today, the first entry and the second one, which is in work, could be closed in +, with +15-20% profit to my depo. :) But again, we need some statistics. Who will start testing the Expert Advisor? I don't have time yet ... :)
Time is money, it's a well-known formula. Therefore, the profits (losses, risks) have to be considered in time.
If you don't have time - pay money.
In Freelance there are many who want to bribe an Expert Advisor.
I may do that too, but I value my time ))
Will it or will it not collapse at the CU?
Place your bets.
;)
Well, it's just been in a bit of profit. No trades were closed.
Will it or will it not collapse at the CU?
Place your bets.
;)
I have already made my choice !!! And I can also confidently state that there is not even a hint of "probability" as stated in the thread title in the algorithm, well at least as I understood it. There is a relationship between currencies via a common currency. And the calculation system tells how far one or the other has gone from the "golden ratio". As soon as the difference in the course of currencies reaches a certain value, or a signal appears to reduce this difference (this is how I decided to enter the transaction) - we calculate the volume of positions and enter the market. The volume of transactions or as I call it the proportion is determined at the moment of entering by the speed of the quotes - which is moving slower - that pair has larger lot. Today for example at a certain moment the proportion I had less than 1, that means that at this moment the speed of the euro was higher than the pound. Something like this.
Now it is possible to fit the mathematics to this algorithm! :)
I've already made my choice!!! And I can also confidently state that there is not even a hint of "probability" as stated in the thread title in the algorithm, well at least as I understood it. There is a relationship between currencies via a common currency. And the calculation system tells how far one or the other has gone from the "golden ratio". As soon as the difference in the course of currencies reaches a certain value, or a signal appears to reduce this difference (this is how I decided to enter the transaction) - we calculate the volume of positions and enter the market. The volume of transactions or as I call it the proportion is determined at the moment of entering by the speed of the quotes - which is moving slower - that pair has larger lot. Today for example at a certain moment the proportion I had less than 1, that means that at this moment the speed of the euro was higher than the pound. Something like this.
Now it is possible to fit the mathematics to this algorithm! :)
Do you correct the volumes of positions in the process of trading?
That is, if you have opened positions and the ratio has changed by your calculations, do you rebalance them?
Do you adjust position volumes as you trade?
That is, if positions are opened and the ratio has changed according to your calculations, do you rebalance them?
I do not correct it yet, but I come to the conclusion that it should be done. At least I have defined a certain algorithm for myself: It should be done only when adding, i.e. when a signal appears the difference starts to widen instead of narrowing - the loss has begun to grow. As soon as there is a new signal about the possible difference reduction, we look at the proportion and correct the first orders. Again, this does not go where we want it to go - we correct it again. And then we average the difference according to the fact of "closing".