On the unequal probability of a price move up or down - page 158

 
Renat Akhtyamov:

No, we didn't take anything seriously.

Someone has taken it, people are asking for new tricks and are eager to guess new pictures. For some reason they do not think about how they will trade non-tradable constants in meaningless equations, and TC does not tell, well, simply because that is what his trolling is actually about.

 
vladavd:

Someone has taken it, people are asking for new tricks and are eager to guess new pictures. For some reason they do not think about how they will trade non-tradable constants in meaningless equations, and TC does not tell, well, simply because that is what his trolling is actually about.

I was one of those who showed interest)

I was just interested in lot calculations to see how it would be done, based on what - for a possible application of the principles.

And TC yes... I was showing off))

 

I think it is not over yet.
The eu has bounced back from 1.10 and -150$ may turn into some plus.

And as for TC - the search for 'absolute courses', 'correct indices', and better points of reference can probably go on and on...

 
Vladimir:

We seem to have taken seriously the nonsense that Mikhael1983 says "about the nature of the market": "This is particularly useful in that there are very few physically meaningful ideas of any kind on the forum". There is no nature here, equilibrium with correlation and that's it. See:

Take
1. The exchange rate of any currency pair to each other X. You can take relative values (divided by the value at a certain moment). You can take the temperature on a thermometer outside the window, in Celsius or Fahrenheit. The main thing is to denote it by X;
2. another rate with the same quotation currency or atmospheric pressure (atm, Pascali, GPa, mm Hg or water column), denoted by Y.
Consider two series Xi and Yi. Consider Ni = Xi - Yi and Mi = Xi + Yi. Ni and Mi immediately, by construction, will be such that Xi/Ni - Yi/Ni = 1 and Xi/Mi + Yi/Mi = 1 for all i. That is, X/N differs from Y/N only by a shift, and the same plus sign for M. Naturally, and the correlation coefficients of X/N with Y/N are 1, and the correlation coefficients of X/M with Y/M are -1. That's it.


In the attached table this is checked for 2048 values of GBPUSD and EURUSD (5 minutes) on the left. On the right for the table of 29 values of temperature and precipitation in Moscow for January 2020. Then in the same columns there are 31 rows with relative humidity and pressure values in January 2019 in the same Moscow. The correlation coefficients are calculated at once for the data in all 60 rows of completely different meaning, but are exactly 1 and -1. The nature of forex is definitely not here.

Oh dear, why?!

What to live with for people now, don't go to serious themes where it's necessary to think...).

 

I have so far )

 
Aleksey Mavrin:
And the proportion grows exponentially with the number of jokes)

Not necessarily at all


.

 
Vladimir:

... That is, X/N differs from Y/N only by a shift, and for M the same plus sign. Naturally, and X/N correlation coefficients with Y/N equals 1, and X/M correlation coefficients with Y/M equals -1. That's it...

The correlation coefficients are calculated at once for the data in all 60 rows of completely different meaning, but are exactly 1 and -1. The nature of forex is definitely not here.

Yes, TC has paid much attention to correlation, but not a single word about cointegration. But it is the most important property of traded instruments in pair trading that can provide profitability in trading. Here are two charts. On the left is the change in time of 2 instruments X and Y. You can see that they have good correlation. The right one shows the spread of these instruments. We can see the spread trend, there is no sign of cointegration. Thus, it is impossible to gain profit in pair trading in this case though the correlation is high.


 
khorosh:

Yes, TC has paid much attention to correlation, but not a single word about cointegration. But it is the most important property of traded instruments in pair trading that can provide profitability in trading. Here are two charts. On the left is the change in time of 2 instruments X and Y. You can see that they have good correlation. The right one shows the spread of these instruments. We can see the spread trend, there is no sign of cointegration. Thus, it is not possible to gain profit in pair trading in this case though the correlation is high.


There is no cointegration with the vector (1, -1), but there may be (or may not be) cointegration with another cointegrating vector.

 
I think 2X-Y should be good. Although the k-values do change over time, of course.
 
Aleksey Nikolayev:

There is no cointegration with vector (1, -1), but there may (or may not) be cointegration with another cointegrating vector.

And this is called a fitting.

Reason: