Points VS Pips - page 143
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Don't be fooled -- "everybody" doesn't know what a "percentage point" is, doesn't want to know and doesn't want to get into it.
if we're talking about "everyone" -- "everyone" means 0.00001 pips -- 0.0001 points.
And if "you" or "we" or "you and us all together and individually" disagree -- then "everyone" doesn't give a damn.
And as for the theory of the question -- pips and poys -- are the same thing.
I'm not dicking around -- open any broker or any signal monitor, pips is listed everywhere and clients see it first.
What percentage of these "all"? Not around the statistical margin of error, by any chance? Or show the survey statistics from the top firms.
you get the same answer.
open any broker - trading conditions
try to find one that counts in MT points - find out what the percentage is
I'm not fooling around -- open any broker or any signal monitor, it says pips everywhere and clients see that first.
opened looked at -- all 140 pages of the thread -- and what they saw was "pips and pint are the same".
you get the same answer.
open any broker - trading conditions
try to find one that counts in MT points - find out what the percentage is
opened looked at -- all 140 pages of the thread -- and what you saw was "pips and pips are the same".
I see. So you have no statistics. Go on, popcorn is coming.
my statistics 100% of brokers indicate trading conditions in pips (in fractional pips)
please show me one that does not
my statistics 100% of brokers indicate trading conditions in pips (in fractional pips)
please show me at least one where this is not the case
my statistics 100% of brokers indicate trading conditions in pips (in fractional pips)
please show me one where this is not the case.
adding pips to a quote is not a way to break the terminology.
If point and pips were the same thing -- adding digits doesn't make them unequal.
What exactly is written in the input parameters? How do you calculate the parameters? What is the answer to the people?
Adding a value to a quotation is not capable of breaking terminology.
exactly)
that's why pips remains a constant value and point MT decreases
if point and pips were the same -- adding signification doesn't make them unequal.
I don't get the idea here, if you add precision (decimal point) to a second - does the second change?
There are fractional indivisible values. But fractional indivisible values cannot exist a priori. When you understand this, you will see the absurdity and surrealism of your assertions.
What does "fractional indivisible values" have to do with it?