MACHINE period with minus value - page 21

 

About tips..... The tips went from the point where they started saying that mirroring a mashup with a positive period would not work.

After that, I offered the option..... to move the mask and extend its tip, but without redrawing it!

Third! No one knows how the waveband will behave after that on the chart, but all the smart ones, where they do not know the answer, start spitting spittle, "I do not know what I want myself...." while everyone understands that everything happens in stages and is adjusted as the information arrives!

If one way doesn't fit, I suggest going the other way! Plus I try to adjust the behaviour of the mashka to the desired result! which one? the one posted in the first post! That said, people come to the thread who again touch on what others couldn't handle! and then again drool from those who start writing ... "again, we've been over this, etc."
Again, if you're already thinking of something and people come up with other solutions, it doesn't mean other ideas are crossed out!

 
Caesar34:


So, about the period... If the period is positive, the MA goes under the price, if the trend is up..... someone put it there, with the help of code, figured it out somehow, though I could do it so, that it goes on the other side of the price and again, due to the code! This is my logic, as a person looking at the picture as a whole...



If by "negative period" you mean a countdown, where the bars on the right instead of the bars on the left are used in the calculation,

then you don't need to write any code for that. You set an ordinary waveform, and in settings set shift equal to the waveform period, but with a negative value.

For example: If period of MA=20, then shift=20.

if the period of MA=10, the shift=-10

Alas, the beginning of the chart (right) will not have a MA period=20, the first 20 bars will be empty. To fix it, you need to know the future bars.

But if you know them, then what's the point of having a mashka?

 
Caesar34:

I was offered the option..... to move the mashup and extend its tip, but without redrawing it!

You can't do it without re-drawing. Many people have already tried to explain that in order to extend the price we need future values that are unknown to us. We can only predict them with a certain accuracy by using some methods. Since our predictions will always be different from the real prices (we are not gods), the tail of the dummy will always be redrawn. Instead of future prices, it is possible to predict the behaviour of the dummy tail itself. But since we know the algorithm for the sMA calculation (SMA = SUM Price[i] / Period), we can always precisely calculate these unknown future prices from the "extended" (extrapolated) sMA. Re-read my previous post about the accuracy of extrapolation.

 
cp
Mathemat:

Thank you very much for clearing up the subject from the off-topic chatter...

So.... since the period can't be made negative, maybe we should think about extending the tip of the displaced swingarm? who thinks?

 

Caesar34:

Who thinks what?

I don't think anything (sensible) will come of it.


Here's an example. Let's say we extended the end of the MA by 10 bars in some way. After 1 bar has passed, the real MA is not equal to the one we expected. What to do?

 
alsu:

I don't think anything (sensible) will work.


For example. Suppose we extended the end of MA by 10 bars in some way. After 1 bar has passed, the MA is not the one we expected. What to do?


don't do anything... we have to see how it looks on the chart.... you have to experiment ... if you shift 20, so the tip length is 10, if you shift 20, so the tip length is 20 ... As for how the tip will appear without re-rendering, at which prices, you also need to try (will it go against the trend price, half slower or faster, the same for trend, you have to try)

By the way, here's an excerpt from a post about the tip....

"Conditions...

a) The tip should be extended to the last bar (its size will be about 20-40 bars)

b) each 1st bar, each section(tip) of one or two, should be drawn on the last bar of the bag itself .... thereby, the tip will be something to draw from(of course the tip should then be without redrawing, if it is drawn on the last bar of the wave)

P/S maybe silly, but if you can, why not try writing such code and see what happens..."


Avals provided the code, but on 50% (p16) where both the wrist shift and tip size are adjusted, but the wrist is redrawn along its entire length, which does not fit the conditions...

Who can correct the code and make the tip without redrawing?

 
Caesar34: Thanks a lot for clearing up the off-topic chatter...

I didn't clean it up. But the moderator who did was on Skype:

I only deleted the flubbing. it turns out it's all flubbing :)
 
tara: Guess who?

There's no need...

2 Caesar: You should draw something schematically. Maybe people will understand you better. Maybe you're digging in the wrong direction with this negative period.

 
Mathemat:

There's no need...

2 Caesar: Draw something schematically, though. Maybe people will understand you better. Maybe you're digging in the wrong direction with this negative period.


all in the wrong direction) here's who will write what I'm asking initially, he'll be the first and the last to know what it's for... =)
 
MikeM:
I have a question for the TS:
What data should be used to calculate the "minus period" value for a bar that has just finished?


Did I miss something or does the TS not know the answer to this question?
SZZ The question is over 8 hours old

Reason: