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Why does the appearance of a new bar on a higher TF cause the indicator on the current one to be redrawn? i.e. prev_calculated becomes 0.
the indicator uses another indicator from the older TF.
It's a shoulder.
And if you multiply by the initiation margin, from the snapshot in the next post, it comes out to just 2000
I don't get it.
Asked why does leverage have to be an integer?
Meaning always 1 to ****
Excludes 1/2.5
Excludes 1/2.5
I guess it's always been the case that leverage is always an integer. And previously there was a maximum of 1k50 then 1k100 now 1k 1000 is no surprise.
I would love to use 1:2,000 leverage to the full. Returns would be higher with acceptable drawdowns when trading a portfolio.
I would love to use 1:2000 leverage to the full. Returns would be higher with acceptable drawdowns when trading a portfolio.
This is the sweet fruit and dream of the common man. Who has $10,000 is already quite an amount and wants to trade for all, not for a min lot.
In my case (PAMM) 100:1 leverage comes out with weak returns at low risk. There is a desire to increase risk, but there is no possibility - leverage does not allow.
Why does the appearance of a new bar on a higher TF cause the indicator on the current one to be redrawn? i.e. prev_calculated becomes 0.
the indicator uses another indicator from the higher TF.
And on what upper TF does the candlestick not appear together with the candlestick on the lower one?