[Archive!] I will write any expert or indicator for free. - page 64
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If I choose only long positions.
1 . I place a pending order
on the level of the maximum of the last closed candle plus 3 points plus
a distance equal to the spread.
2 . Stop Loss is set to the minimum of the current day minus 3 pips .
3 . Take Profit should not be set.
4 . Trailing Stop should not be set.
5 . If the position is open, no new orders are placed.
6 . If position is closed by a stop loss, a new
pending order is placed at the level of the last candle's high plus 3
points plus distance equal to spread, stop loss is placed at
current day low minus 3 points, take profit is not placed trailing stop
is not placed if position is open new orders are not placed.
If I choose only short positions.
1 . I place pending order
on level of a minimum of the last closed candle minus 3 points.
2 . Stop Loss is set at the high of the current day plus 3 pips plus
a distance equal to the spread.
3 . Take profit should not be set.
4 . Trailing Stop shall not be set.
5 . If the position is open, no new orders are placed.
6 . If position is closed on a stop loss, a new
pending order is placed on the level of the minimum of last closed candle minus 3
points, stop loss is placed on the maximum of the current day plus 3 points plus
distance equal to spread, take profit is not exhibited trailing stop is not
exhibited if position is open new orders are not placed.
Many thanks in advance. )
Thank you very much! Only I've already tried it, it's not quite right! Already found 30 indicators, all wrong.
Basically there is a reflection of a tethered MA, I would like to see everything as a whole, maybe you can help?
Ready to wait as long as you like!!! Thanks!!!
We should be more specific about what we want. So far there have been general words
I apologize for my sharpshooting, but I'll try to explain it to you in detail.
If I choose only long positions.
1 . I place a pending order
At the level of maximum of the last closed candle plus 3 points plus
a distance equal to the spread.
2 . Stop Loss is put at the minimum of the current day minus 3 points.
3 . Take Profit should not be set.
4 . Trailing Stop should not be set.
5 . If the position is open, no new orders are placed.
6 . If the position is closed on a stop loss, a new pending order is placed
A new pending order is placed at the level of the maximum of the last closed candle plus 3
Points plus the spread, stop loss is set to the minimum of the
the current day minus 3 points, take profit is not set trailing stop
is not set if position is open new orders are not set.
If I choose only short positions.
1 . A pending order is placed
At the level of the minimum of the last closed candlestick minus 3 points.
2 . Stop loss is set to the maximum of the current day plus 3 pips plus
the distance equal to the spread.
3 . Take Profit should not be set.
4 . Trailing Stop shall not be set.
5 . If the position is open, no new orders are placed.
6 . If the position is closed on a stop loss, a new
A new pending order is placed at the level of the minimum of the last closed candle minus 3 points.
Points and the stop loss is set to the maximum of the current day plus 3 points plus
a new pending order is placed at the level of the minimum of the last closed candlestick minus 3 pips, stop loss is set at the maximum of the current day plus 3 pips and distance equal to the spread.
If my position is open no new orders are placed.
Many thanks in advance. )
Andrey. Repeating the same post in different threads is spam, spam is punished with a ban. This is a warning for now.
...
These are the axioms:
1. The market is equally likely to move both 'down' and 'up'.
2. The frequency of price movement in a particular range depends on the size of the range. I.e. the price in a 10 pip range moves 10 times as often as in a 100 pip range.
The longer the price moves in a certain range, the more likely it is to leave it, because nothing is permanent.
If you write your own opinions, don't call them AXIOMS, especially since they are neither obvious (a sign of an axiom) nor true...
See for yourself...
AXIOMA #1. The market is equally likely to move both "down" and "up". It is impossible to call this statement obvious, especially true (for example, on the interval between 26.11.2009 and 07.06.2010, the EURUSD was moving downwards with higher probability than upwards, and then reversed). This is called a trend. If there are trends, then the probability of movement in one direction is higher than in the opposite direction.
This axiom also contradicts the next axiom (i.e. #2). If price moves 10 pips in a 10 pips range, as you say, 10 times more often than in a 100 pips range, then from the low end of a small range it is more likely to move up than down (and from the high end, respectively, vice versa).
AXIOMA #2. The frequency of the price movement within the range depends on the size of the range. I.e. the price in the range of 10 pip moves 10 times more often than in the range of 100 pip.
This is not good at all! Still couldn't understand the logic behind this inference. What is meant by "frequency of price movement in a certain range" and why in the range of 10 pips the price moves 10 times more often than in the 100 pip range is not clear?
The cumulative frequency of movement in the 100 point range must be greater than in the 10 point range. Although perhaps we understand the term "frequency" differently...
AXIOMA #3. The longer the price has been moving in a certain range, the more likely it is that it will leave it, because nothing is permanent.
If the price has "left" the range, then the probability of its movement out of the range is higher than the probability of its return into the range. Thus, the logic of the first axiom is again violated. In general we can agree with axiom 3, although it is obvious that the general logic is very bad.
P.S.
Truth, as philosophers say, cannot be abstract - it is always concrete. Therefore it is necessary to specify the conditions under which these "axioms" will be true
If they do not send me an EA, it means I wrote something wrong in the parameters or they do not want to take the EA because it does not have a take profit?
If you write your own opinions, don't call them AXIOMS, especially as there is no obviousness (a sign of an axiom) or truth in them...
See for yourself...
AXIOMA #1. The market is equally likely to move both "down" and "up". It is impossible to call this statement obvious, especially true (for example, on the interval between 26.11.2009 and 07.06.2010, the EURUSD was moving downwards with higher probability than upwards, and then reversed). This is called a trend. If there are trends, then the probability of movement in one direction is higher than in the opposite direction.
This axiom also contradicts the next axiom (i.e. #2). If price moves 10 pips in a 10 pips range, as you say, 10 times more often than in a 100 pips range, then from the low end of a small range it is more likely to move up than down (and from the high end, respectively, vice versa).
AXIOMA #2. The frequency of the price movement within the range depends on the size of the range. I.e. the price in the range of 10 pip moves 10 times more often than in the range of 100 pip.
This is not good at all! Still couldn't understand the logic behind this inference. What is meant by "frequency of price movement in a certain range" and why in the range of 10 pips the price moves 10 times more often than in the 100 pip range is not clear?
The cumulative frequency of movement in the 100 point range must be greater than in the 10 point range. Although perhaps we understand the term "frequency" differently...
AXIOMA #3. The longer the price has been moving within a certain range, the more probable it is that it will leave it, because nothing is permanent.
If the price has "left" the range, then the probability of its movement out of the range is higher than the probability of its return into the range. Thus, the logic of the first axiom is again violated. In general, we can agree with axiom 3, though obviously, the general logic is not very good.
Axiom #1: You did not say that from 26.11.09 to 7.06.10 the Eurobucks would move in a certain direction, you said it was moving. I.e. concluded from a move that had already taken place. If you had said this on 25.11.09 - this axiom would have been disproved.
Axiom #2. It implies that the price touches the price edges of a certain range. What is meant is the frequency of touching, not the path. It is logical and undisputable that the price will touch the range in 10 pip more often than in 100 pip in the same period of time.
That's why they are axioms, they don't require proof. I have a profitable Expert Advisor that basically uses them, on real accounts. Produce your axioms in such a way that they are proven to be profitable and I will take them into account. There is no logical contradiction between them: there is simply a desire to disprove more than to create.
Hi,
Sorry to cut in with the "axiomatic maxims", I'm totally confused with my sines/cosines and dampings/increases,
If it is relevant, and if it has not been implemented in one way or another, please make a free indicator )))) or direct it in the right direction ... it may not be worth the time ...
Input parameters:
1. Depth of history (relative to the specified depth, the indicator should find the flat area and adjust this parameter to the value at the end of the flat - where the market is more or less balanced).
The output:
Curve )))
The curve is built as follows:
Any price value of the timeframe on the selected period - count as a spike - down or up.
If Open==Close - do nothing.
take the farthest point of the chosen history depth and "save in the array" the curve with decaying oscillations with the initial amplitude Open[i]-Close[i] (it's hard to say about the period of the curve, it seems to be a purely psychological factor, probably the greater the amplitude - the greater the period...)
take the next point and do the same thing ... and so on ... (ideally, we get N arrays with decreasing length and values only for the particular i-th timeframe)
In the process of calculating these curves we add them one by one...
...and as a result we display them in MT...
or am I talking nonsense?
Z.I. The part of the graph with the negative indices is of course interesting ))))1. The market is equally likely to move either 'down' or 'up'.
2. The frequency of price movement in a particular range depends on the size of the range. I.e. the price in a 10 pip range moves 10 times as often as in a 100 pip range.
3) The longer the price moves in a certain range, the more likely it is to leave it, because nothing is permanent.