Discussion of article "Extract profit down to the last pip" - page 15
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It is therefore a good idea to have an optimisation criterion for reinvestment.
Taken like this: what relative profitability is achieved at a rigidly specified maximum relative drawdown.
What is the fundamental difference from the recovery factor?
What is the fundamental difference from the recovery factor?
FV - how many times we managed to rise after the largest relative drawdown.
For example, let's say we collapsed 10 times, and then went up the same amount of times, at the end of which we got the original balance. Then profitability is equal to one, drawdown is 90%, FS = 10.
Let's assume that we collapsed 5 times, and then rose 10 times, at the end having doubled the balance. Then profitability is equal to two, drawdown is 50%, FS = 10.
PS It is better to take the TS, run it in Optimiser and compare FS and OnTester.
FV - how many times it was possible to rise after the largest relative drawdown.
that's the first time I've seen that definition.
It would be good to add another definition.
It would be good to supplement with another definition.
For example, from the signals.
Here is a foreign one:
Yes, I was talking about another RF, the classical one.
There is also a variant with time rationing, for example, take not the whole profit, but the average profit for the year (leave the drawdown as maximum for the whole time). Then the RF will not change much depending on the testing interval.
like from the signals.
Then this FF is not suitable for reinvestment at all.
Then this FV is no good at all when reinvesting.
if you take the logarithm is good, your FV is not good just always at least because it depends on the place of the biggest drawdown.
I am ready to have a constructive discussion on this topic. I don't quite understand about the logarithm. Are you suggesting to logarithm OrderOpenPrice and OrderClosePrice and calculate the FV by them in the classical way?
The classical FV is bad because it depends on the place where the reinvest-TC starts.
FV was mentioned here in a question to me. I myself suggested using another characteristic.
I didn't quite understand about the logarithm.
for example log(gain %/loss %).
Classical FV is bad because it depends on where the reinvest-TC starts.
Composter above suggested classical FV with time rationing.