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This is an estimate, but not reality. If you look at the chart, it shows a wad that changes colour on reversals. Let's do the TS: when the colour changes, we enter and exit, we do not consider the reversal. We can see that at reversal to short on the 5-th section the wand is ideal: the reversal has practically coincided with the ZZ signal. On the reversal, there is quite a significant dip. Let's count: the reversal on the "0" candle. But we can know about the reversal on the -1 candle, or to be more precise, on Close[-1], i.e. we are on the -2 candle, i.e. we enter at Close[-2] at approximately 1.4120 instead of 1.5141. The same reasoning for closing the position: exit at about 1.3100 instead of 1.1869. The profit is 1020 pips, which is three times less than the theoretical one, but it is still a lot: about 1000% for one lot. Increasing the number of open lots, reinvesting the profit will increase your profit. You don't need to look at PAMM accounts. I think the calculation above is much more accurate than fairy tales and fantasies.
I agree. The theory is excellent. But how do you turn that theory into real practice?
It's not clear then, why with such great results without a real one? Only a tester?
И...?
И...?
Here's a test for August where each trade was fully in cash at the time of opening..:
A total of 45 trades
where is the time?