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Would you care to provide the grounds for declaring the transaction null and void? Only the references to the paragraphs of the relevant laws or regulations do not forget to give.
The basic misunderstanding on this topic is at the very beginning of this problem...
The forex market is not a CLIENT market, but an INVESTMENT market.
There is no concept of a BUYER in this market; there is a concept of an INVESTOR... There is no concept of a SELLER but of an INNOVATIVE PRODUCT inventor (a developer), in our case an advisor or an expert.
In this case, the relations are based on the following scheme:
The Investor invests in a project which uses an innovative product (Expert Advisor) developed by the Inventor. When introducing this product into trading, the Investor tries to make this project pay off and get profit in the future. At the same time, all the parties in this project have been warned that there are no guarantees when profit is received.
All know from statistics that out of ten investment projects at best only one project receives a profit, and not always ... And all know that investments in such high-risk sector of the economy as forex must be VERY CAREFULLY PROVEN ...
the question is not whether or not they are forced to, but whether it is legal to sell goods whose specifications cannot be verified and the specifications in the product description are not guaranteed?
the purchaser of such a product is, to put it mildly, an incompetent person.
The basic misunderstanding on this topic is at the very beginning of this problem...
The forex market is not a CUSTOMER market, but an INVESTMENT market.
There is no concept of a BUYER in this market; there is a concept of an INVESTOR... There is no concept of a SELLER but of an INNOVATIVE PRODUCT inventor (a developer), in our case an advisor or an expert.
In this case, the relations are based on the following scheme:
The Investor invests in a project which uses an innovative product (Expert Advisor) developed by the Inventor. When introducing this product into trading, the Investor tries to make this project pay off and get profit in the future. In this case, all parties in this project are warned about the absence of any guarantees when profit is received.
From statistics, we all know that out of ten investment projects at best only one gets a profit, and not always... And we all know that investments in such a high-risk sector of the economy as forex must be VERY CAREFULLY PROVEN ...
In our case, it is perfectly legal. The goods are purchased with the intention of using them for profit. Accordingly, the law does not protect the purchaser in terms of the fact that he could not assess the goods due to his lack of special knowledge or information about the goods.
Once again, is it legal to sell goods without a guarantee of conformity of technical specifications to the description without a contract being drawn up and signed by the parties?
and in what "our case"?))) don't get hooked.
In the case of buying a product on the market, it is the seller and the buyer, after all.
Once again, is it legal to sell goods without a guarantee of conformity of technical specifications to the description without a contract being drawn up and signed by the parties?
You should not equate a mass-produced product in the consumer market with a unique one-off designed by an Inventor... These are different things which are not covered by consumer law...
You should not equate a mass-produced product in the consumer market with a unique one-off designed by an Inventor... These are different things, which are not covered by consumer law...
An invention is patentable, in which case either the patent or the permission to use is sold and this is a different area of law.
If the technical specifications are not specified, then yes, legally. If they are specified and do not match, then that is a basis for a claim by the buyer. Only, no court will accept the result of back-test of the advisor as a technical characteristic of a software product.
You read it selectively - "I read it here and I don't read it there".
We have established that goods purchased for business purposes must be accompanied by a contract, which is not done. And it is not possible to prove compliance with technical specifications.
So, the technical characteristics of the product are not confirmed and cannot be guaranteed and the relevant contract is not signed, is this not a fraudulent scheme where the buyer is a fool and the seller is a fraud?