Andrei01: Can you give an example with calculations to prove your theory?
Let's assume the price is fixed in both cases (we managed to make two trades on it): Bid 1.3000, Ask 1.3001. We open with a volume of 0.1.
МТ4: we opened a Buy position at 1.3001 and opened a Sell position at 1.3000. The result is two open positions with an unrecorded loss of $2.
MT5: we opened Buy position at the price of 1.3001, opened Sell position at the price of 1.3000. The result is a lack of positions and decrease of the balance by 1 dollar.
The trick is to correctly close the open positions in MT4, namely, to achieve the identity of the situation. In this case, the balance will decrease by 1 dollar, not by 2. If in MT4 you close positions separately, you will get a $2 loss.
No matter how you look at it, you will not have a $2 loss in MT5.
Let's assume the price is fixed in both cases (we managed to make two trades on it): Bid 1.3000, Ask 1.3001. We open with a volume of 0.1.
МТ4: we opened a Buy position at 1.3001 and opened a Sell position at 1.3000. The result is two open positions with an unrecorded loss of $2.
MT5: we opened Buy position at the price of 1.3001, opened Sell position at the price of 1.3000. The result is a lack of positions and decrease of the balance by 1 dollar.
The trick is to correctly close the open positions in MT4, namely, to achieve the identity of the situation. In this case, the balance will decrease by 1 dollar, not by 2. If in MT4 you close positions separately, you will get a $2 loss.
In MT5, no matter how you look at it, you will not get a $2 loss in such a situation.
If you want to draw positions with times and points of profit at each moment, it's too abstract to close them in the right way. In general, if the netting is the same, then the spread should be the same, because we know that the spread is taken upon position opening, and you can close as you like - just close or enter with a reverse lot. So, this is not convincing.
Andrei01: In general, if the netting is the same, then the spread should be the same, because it is known that the spread is taken when you open a position and you can close it any way you want. In general, if the netting is the same, then the spread should be the same, because it is known that the spread is taken at the opening, and you can close the position the way you want - just close or enter with a reverse lot. So it is not convincing so far.
Integer: You're arguing for nothing, Mishek is absolutely right with this definition of the spread.
Mishek may be right about the definition of the spread, but not about the fact that it is NOT deducted at the time of opening a trade. The spread in MT4 is deducted at the time of opening a trade, check it on the demo.
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You are, I'm sorry to say, a mess in your head.
Is that bad or good? :)
Can you give an example with calculations to prove your theory?
Let's assume the price is fixed in both cases (we managed to make two trades on it): Bid 1.3000, Ask 1.3001. We open with a volume of 0.1.
МТ4: we opened a Buy position at 1.3001 and opened a Sell position at 1.3000. The result is two open positions with an unrecorded loss of $2.
MT5: we opened Buy position at the price of 1.3001, opened Sell position at the price of 1.3000. The result is a lack of positions and decrease of the balance by 1 dollar.
The trick is to correctly close the open positions in MT4, namely, to achieve the identity of the situation. In this case, the balance will decrease by 1 dollar, not by 2. If in MT4 you close positions separately, you will get a $2 loss.
No matter how you look at it, you will not have a $2 loss in MT5.
Let's assume the price is fixed in both cases (we managed to make two trades on it): Bid 1.3000, Ask 1.3001. We open with a volume of 0.1.
МТ4: we opened a Buy position at 1.3001 and opened a Sell position at 1.3000. The result is two open positions with an unrecorded loss of $2.
MT5: we opened Buy position at the price of 1.3001, opened Sell position at the price of 1.3000. The result is a lack of positions and decrease of the balance by 1 dollar.
The trick is to correctly close the open positions in MT4, namely, to achieve the identity of the situation. In this case, the balance will decrease by 1 dollar, not by 2. If in MT4 you close positions separately, you will get a $2 loss.
In MT5, no matter how you look at it, you will not get a $2 loss in such a situation.
No. The spread is the natural market difference between the best buy price and the best sell price.
It is not deductible. It is the commission that is deducted. The spread is just there.
But you're wrong :)
In MT4 it is removed
Is that bad or good? :)
In general, if the netting is the same, then the spread should be the same, because it is known that the spread is taken when you open a position and you can close it any way you want. In general, if the netting is the same, then the spread should be the same, because it is known that the spread is taken at the opening, and you can close the position the way you want - just close or enter with a reverse lot. So it is not convincing so far.
You're wrong, though :)
In MT4 it is removed
You're arguing for nothing, Mishek is absolutely right with this definition of the spread.
is it dressed in mt5?