A variant of the proof of the first axiom of Dow - page 13
You are missing trading opportunities:
- Free trading apps
- Over 8,000 signals for copying
- Economic news for exploring financial markets
Registration
Log in
You agree to website policy and terms of use
If you do not have an account, please register
So the whole point is in the highlighted, that's why it's addressed to you :)
Example: There are 10 shares and each has a par value of 100000-00 which amounts to 10% of the share capital.
Each shareholder owns 10% of the shares.
As a result of its activities, the company has received an undistributed net profit of 1000000-00.
The shareholder meeting has resolved to use the PE to increase the share capital, and to secure shareholders' rights by issuing additional shares amounting to 1000000-00, with a par value of one share of 100000-00.
As a result, each shareholder has received one additional share, but remains the owner of 10% of the shares.
The JSC has decided to issue an additional share and sell this additional share on the market because the company is in need of working capital.
Prior to the issue, there were two shareholders with 50% of the shares.
The entire issue was sold on the market and the buyers were NOT the old shareholders.
Did the old shareholders' shares decrease after the issue?
OK, progress already.
"Pound collapse" is the negative value of the difference between the pound exchange rate at the time immediately BEFORE the Brexit and immediately AFTER the Brexit (GBPUSD(t-1) - GBPUSD(t)). That is, there is a connection WITH the GBPUSD(t).
But from the "pound collapse process" (GBPUSD(t-1) - GBPUSD(t)) it is impossible to mathematically obtain the very fact of Brexit.
THEN there is no connection!
So is there a connection or not?
That's right:
The Supply and Demand ratio before the Collapse - reflected in the Price before the Collapse.
The Supply and Demand ratio after the collapse is reflected in the Price after the collapse.
The Supply and Demand was affected by Brexit, as well as many other factors before Brexit:)
But only the Supply/Demand Ratio of the Pound has been included in the Price:)
That's right:
The Supply and Demand ratio before the Collapse is reflected in the Price before the collapse.
The Supply and Demand ratio after the collapse is reflected in the Price after the collapse.
The Supply and Demand was affected by Brexit, as well as many other factors before Brexit:)
But only the Supply and Demand Ratio of the pound went into the Price:)
Which is correct?
The contradiction how do you solve it?
You have a relationship between price and Braxit and at the same time there is no relationship because you cannot mathematically deduce the fact of Braxit from the fall in price.
There is a correlation and there is no correlation - all true....
Which is correct?
How do you solve the contradiction?
You have a relationship between price and Braxit and at the same time there is no relationship because you cannot mathematically deduce the fact of Braxit from the fall in price.
There is a correlation and there is no correlation - all true....
All contradictions will disappear once you understand the concept of Supply-Demand Relationship,
And the fact that Price only reflects the Supply/Demand Relationship.
It is this Supply/Supply Ratio that is the final value that is put into the Price.
That's it. There is nothing else in the price :)
All other factors influence Supply and Demand, but not the price, through the proportion of their properties which influence the rise and fall of Supply and Demand.
Therefore, there is no direct connection between the Price and Brexit. However, there is a relationship between Brexit and Demand for the pound, which leads to a fall in Demand for that currency.
In turn, a fall in Demand has led to a change in the Supply/Demand ratio,
and the change in the Ratio is reflected in the Price.
And that's it! There is nothing left in the Price! Only the Supply/Demand ratio:)
The JSC has decided to issue an additional share and sell this additional share on the market - the company needs working capital.
Prior to the issue, there were two shareholders of 50% each.
The entire issue was sold on the market and the buyers were NOT the old shareholders.
Did the old shareholders' shares decrease after the issue?
With what funds did you have an additional issue? If not at the expense of the assets of the company, the share will decrease, because the net assets will increase at the expense of the assets of other persons.
You just need to remember that there may be different options. I have no real statistics on this issue, alas.
Dear Yusuf, forex is a free market and also an unregulated market. At any given time, those giants banks or major currency countries that can influence the market push the price wherever it suits them.
No theory or theorem works here.
100% ....... quite an obvious truth.... there is nothing to discuss...... it's like arguing that cottage cheese does not come from dumplings.....it's just strange that such a grown man and seemingly not stupid master of the mathematical apparatus does not understand the simplest things lying on the surface...... a 6-year-old kid might think so, but a man who's seen life... ....... very strange.
Tell me your prediction on the euro.
Thank you!
Think back to your school mathematics course. An axiom is a statement that needs no proof. What axioms can there be in trading? Everything has to be tested and proven.
to go along with the previous one