Random probability theory. Napalm continues! - page 15
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the probabilities are the same?
did you do the research yourself?
studied
No. So?
why not?
Two sequences.
both initially closed.
the probabilities of not having red in them are DIFFERENT? justify it.
justify it.
studied
great.
do you think there's any sense in it?
or is it no different from a horse in a vacuum? the first sketches show that it has practical applications.
I wonder if, as in game theory, it's applicable.
Honestly ))))
Right, again a troll. When it comes to bullshit, it's always "word of honour" ))))
are we having a discussion or what?
Are we having a discussion or what?
And how many beaches can you rub in the extra a priori knowledge? So it's not clear who's the troll :)
Stupid questions invariably get stupid answers.
And how many beaches can you rub in the extra a priori knowledge? So it's unclear who the troll is :)
Stupid questions invariably get stupid answers.
I asked a simple question.
they give two sequences of spins.
is the probability of no red in them the same? why?
how will it "suddenly change" if we watch one of them? or the other? or both? that is exactly what you are saying, that the probabilities of the observed and un[observed] will be different, do i understand you correctly?
initially the probability is 0.5 to the power of XX(the length of the last one) in any sequence.
right-no?
how will it "suddenly change" if we watch one of them?
great.
do you think there's any sense in it?
or is it no different from a horse in a vacuum? the first sketches show that it has practical applications.
I wonder if, as in game theory, it's applicable.
If there is a priori knowledge about the process under study, it is better than the frequency one by many parameters. If there is no knowledge, then frequency is more convenient.