# question about burton momentum wave???

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could any one explain for us how to generate this wave , as i don't understand it

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Any object vibrating will produce a wave as a function

of time. That is to say, all vibration produces a wave

form . . . momentum up . . . momentum down. Price

vibration in the market produces a consistent wave with

a wavelength (period) of 26.

While it could be argued by some that the wavelength of

market vibration is 27, this is actually a moot point

since in real-world application the wave ranges on

average from slightly less than 26 to slightly more

than 26. The pertinent point is that no matter how you

formulate the underlying wave generated by price

vibration . . . the wavelength comes out to be 26.

Consequently, this simple fact will serve to reveal the

Phi structure so ubiquitous in vibration.

In practice one will observe that while the wave form

of price vibration is pretty consistent in its length

of 26, what is of interest is that wave divergences

from 26 will predominantly fall in the 270* to 360*

quadrant of the “Square of 9“. Specifically in the 180*

(or 2nd) wrap as shown below.

So price vibration over time yields a price/time

‘momentum’ wave. The discriminating factors are:
(1) Price Square Range
(2) Price Square Factor
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‘Price Square Range‘_Range of price bar (in ticks)

squared. Example: range of price bar = 10 ticks, square

= 100
‘Price Square Factor‘_Range in degrees above/below the

price square range of the chart. Example: Range of

chart = 10, 270* above is 13. (Note: 270* = a square

root factor of 3 and is a key component in vibrational

analysis)
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Using a ‘Square of 9′ formulation and applying ‘price

square factors’ of +/- 90 to 360* produces consistent

cycle duration (wavelength) of 26 bars. Certainly it is

non-linear, which is beautiful, but on average . . . 26

bars.