Randomness of price values - page 9
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Once Stirlitz wrote an Expert Advisor using macros. Optimized it and tested in tester - it works. Then he put it for real - it loses. Optimized it again and tested in tester - it earns. I tried it again on real - it still loses.
- I should try again, thought Stirlitz after 896th attempt.
iTime (.....) =TimeCurrent()
And in real life, in the absence of it, by the way, it earns more than in the tester.
iTime (.....) =TimeCurrent()
and it earns more in real life than in the tester in the absence of it
With Slava's permission I will try to sell this secret formula to American hedge-funds. They need fresh ideas, right?
)))
With Slava's permission, I will try to sell this secret formula to American hedge funds. They need fresh ideas, don't they?
)))
Do they need to? Under such conditions, with a positive expectation of return, they are not required to do anything other than artificially maintain liquidity. They are not traders and investors and even not market makers, but exchange specialists. There is no risk in their activity, because they only get paid for their work.
They do not care whether the price behaves randomly or not.
Who told you that a negative commission is a condition for a positive MO? The spread is far from zero, in fact, it exceeds the size of the negative commission.
The strategy that takes advantage of this circumstance is available (but yields significantly less profit than the others), it is based on short-term analysis of the dynamics of bids at the nearest price levels of the cup. That is, they look for the moment when they can open and close at the same price with very high probability. They need to predict a statistically zero spread.
i didn't talk to you... it's just elementary logic - there are no absolute patterns in forex! the price movement is an absolute randomness!
And the wave theory, as I wrote, works just as well with a coin flip and a casino ball... and with any random process in nature
there is no such thing as absolute randomness. Randomness is an abstraction invented by man. It is a measure of the uninformedness of a particular observer about the patterns of a process.
A manifestation of the essence of one and not more than one object, a phenomenon that has no logical justification, and defines the originality of that phenomenon.
Option 2: the manifestation of the result of the intersection (coincidence) of independent processes or events.There's no such thing as absolute randomness. Randomness is an abstraction invented by man. It is a measure of the uninformedness of a particular observer about the patterns of a process.
Einstein thought so too. And Kant. And a shitload of others. So you're not alone at all. You're in very good company.
Although quantum mechanics gave this company a cancer a long time ago. Still, they are all very respectable people. Besides, there are more of them. ;)
Einstein thought so too. And Kant. And a shitload of others. So you're not alone at all. You're in very good company.
Although quantum mechanics has long ago crippled that company. But still, they're all very respectable people. Besides, there are more of them. ;)
Come on :) They can't deal with a cat that's dead and alive at the same time. They don't want to crawl all over us ;)
Come on :) They can't deal with a cat that's dead and alive at the same time. They don't want to crawl all over us ;)
;)
Well, unlike the cat, they did manage to deal with the question of the fundamentality of randomness (as opposed to uninformedness).
To return to the original topic. My understanding is that, despite the fundamental nature of random processes, they do tend to create regularities on statistical scales.
Boyle and Marriott still rule. So does Heisenberg. I'm not saying anything new. I just want to get the discussion back on track with signs of science... :)